Interesting, I'm going to attempt to word my question correctly...
Say a speaker is set up to run from 50hz to 400hz, and lets assume the speakers do not have a crossover and just start and stop at those frequencies. The next speaker goes from 400-3200hz. In terms of what was just said, they are both playing 4 octaves.
The simple mathematical difference is 350hz and 2800hz respectively, right? I have been told in the past that this 350hz mid-bass range is basically the same as the 2800hz midrange. Are we only speaking from the human ear perspective? Are we just basing these ranges on the standard western 7 note scale?